Viral hepatitis flashcards
19 high-yield MRCP Part 1 cards from the Intellect Medicos Gastroenterology & Hepatology course. Try to answer each question before you open it — then study them properly with spaced repetition, which brings each card back just before you would forget it.
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Which serological marker confirms ACUTE hepatitis A infection?
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IgM anti-HAV.
Why? IgG anti-HAV indicates past infection or vaccination. Hepatitis A is a faeco-oral picornavirus with no chronic or carrier state.
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A kidney transplant recipient on tacrolimus has a persistently raised ALT. He often eats undercooked pork sausages. HEV RNA remains positive after 3 months. Which antiviral is used for chronic hepatitis E?
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Ribavirin (for about 3 months), alongside reducing immunosuppression where possible.
Why? HEV is usually self-limiting, but immunosuppressed patients can develop chronic infection and cirrhosis.
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Which serological result defines CHRONIC hepatitis B infection?
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HBsAg positive for more than 6 months.
Why? HBsAg is the hallmark of active infection. In recovery it disappears and anti-HBs appears.
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During the 'window period' of acute hepatitis B, which marker may be the only positive one?
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IgM anti-HBc.
Why? HBsAg has cleared but anti-HBs has not yet appeared, so only core antibody shows the infection.
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Hepatitis B serology: vaccinated only = ______; past infection now cleared = anti-HBc positive, HBsAg negative (usually with anti-HBs).
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anti-HBs positive, anti-HBc negative
Why? The vaccine contains only surface antigen, so vaccinated people never make anti-HBc.
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Hepatitis B serology: vaccinated only = anti-HBs positive, anti-HBc negative; past infection now cleared = ______ (usually with anti-HBs).
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anti-HBc positive, HBsAg negative
Why? The vaccine contains only surface antigen, so vaccinated people never make anti-HBc.
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Under NICE guidance, what is first-line antiviral treatment for an adult with chronic hepatitis B and COMPENSATED liver disease?
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A 48-week course of peginterferon alfa-2a.
Why? A finite course can achieve lasting HBeAg seroconversion. Second line: tenofovir disoproxil if HBeAg-positive; entecavir or tenofovir disoproxil if HBeAg-negative.
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What is first-line antiviral treatment for chronic hepatitis B with DECOMPENSATED liver disease?
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Entecavir (tenofovir disoproxil if there is lamivudine resistance).
Why? Peginterferon must NOT be given in decompensated disease because it can precipitate liver failure.
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NICE CG165: pregnant women with hepatitis B are offered ______ if HBV DNA is above 10⁷ IU/mL in the third trimester.
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tenofovir disoproxil
Why? This reduces transmission to the baby, alongside vaccine and immunoglobulin at birth.
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NICE CG165: pregnant women with hepatitis B are offered tenofovir disoproxil if HBV DNA is above ______ in the third trimester.
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10⁷ IU/mL
Why? This reduces transmission to the baby, alongside vaccine and immunoglobulin at birth.
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What is the main renal adverse effect of tenofovir disoproxil?
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Nephrotoxicity – proximal tubular damage (Fanconi-type syndrome) – so renal function and phosphate are monitored.
Why? Tenofovir is cleared by the proximal tubule. It can also reduce bone mineral density.
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After a full hepatitis B vaccine course, a healthcare worker's anti-HBs is below 10 mIU/mL. What is done?
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Treat as a non-responder: repeat the full vaccine course and recheck; if still a non-responder, give HBIG after any exposure.
Why? Anti-HBs of 100 or more indicates a good response; 10–99 is a suboptimal response needing a booster dose.
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Hepatitis C: screen with ______, then confirm active infection with HCV RNA (PCR).
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anti-HCV antibody
Why? Antibody stays positive after clearance or cure, so RNA is needed to show current infection. Test RNA directly if immunocompromised or acute infection is suspected.
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Hepatitis C: screen with anti-HCV antibody, then confirm active infection with ______.
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HCV RNA (PCR)
Why? Antibody stays positive after clearance or cure, so RNA is needed to show current infection. Test RNA directly if immunocompromised or acute infection is suspected.
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What is the modern treatment for chronic hepatitis C, and how is cure defined?
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A pangenotypic direct-acting antiviral combination (e.g. sofosbuvir/velpatasvir for 12 weeks or glecaprevir/pibrentasvir for 8 weeks); cure = SVR12, undetectable HCV RNA 12 weeks after finishing.
Why? DAAs cure about 95% of patients; interferon and ribavirin are now rarely used.
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Sofosbuvir is a nucleotide inhibitor of the HCV ______; velpatasvir and ledipasvir inhibit NS5A.
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NS5B RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Why? Combining drugs that hit different viral proteins prevents resistance. NS3/4A protease inhibitors (e.g. grazoprevir, glecaprevir) are a third class.
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Sofosbuvir is a nucleotide inhibitor of the HCV NS5B RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; velpatasvir and ledipasvir inhibit ______.
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NS5A
Why? Combining drugs that hit different viral proteins prevents resistance. NS3/4A protease inhibitors (e.g. grazoprevir, glecaprevir) are a third class.
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Which antiarrhythmic must not be combined with sofosbuvir-containing regimens, and why?
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Amiodarone – risk of severe, sometimes fatal, bradycardia and heart block.
Why? The mechanism is not fully understood. If unavoidable, it needs specialist advice and close cardiac monitoring.
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Which renal lesion is classically associated with hepatitis C infection?
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Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (often with mixed cryoglobulinaemia).
Why? Immune complexes and cryoglobulins deposit in glomeruli. Other extrahepatic links: porphyria cutanea tarda, lichen planus, Sjögren's, insulin resistance.
More Gastroenterology & Hepatology topics
- Oesophagus & dysphagia
- Stomach, H. pylori & GI hormones
- IBD & other colitis
- Malabsorption & IBS
- GI bleeding & diverticular disease
- Alcohol, fatty & autoimmune liver disease
- Inherited & metabolic liver disease
- Cirrhosis & its complications
- Pancreas & biliary tree
- GI cancer, polyposis & NETs
- Infection, nutrition & pregnancy