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Transfusion medicine flashcards

13 high-yield MRCP Part 1 cards from the Intellect Medicos Haematology & Oncology course. Try to answer each question before you open it — then study them properly with spaced repetition, which brings each card back just before you would forget it.

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  1. Two hours into a platelet transfusion, a patient develops a temperature of 38.4 °C and chills. Observations are otherwise stable and there are no signs of haemolysis. What is the likely reaction and its management?

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    Febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction — slow or pause the transfusion and give paracetamol.

    Why? Cytokines released by donor white cells build up during storage, especially in platelets stored at room temperature.

  2. Which patients classically develop anaphylaxis to blood products, and what should they receive in future?

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    IgA-deficient patients with anti-IgA antibodies; future transfusions should be washed red cells or IgA-deficient donor products.

    Why? The anti-IgA antibodies react with IgA in donor plasma, triggering mast cell degranulation.

  3. What is the usual cause of an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction?

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    ABO incompatibility, almost always from a clerical or patient-identification error.

    Why? Recipient IgM anti-A/anti-B antibodies fix complement, causing intravascular haemolysis within minutes, with risk of AKI, DIC and shock.

  4. An 84-year-old with heart failure becomes breathless during her second unit of red cells. BP 172/94 mmHg, raised JVP and bibasal crackles. What is the diagnosis, and which drug is given?

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    Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) — stop the transfusion, sit her up, give oxygen and IV furosemide.

    Why? The heart cannot handle the extra volume, causing cardiogenic pulmonary oedema with hypertension and a positive fluid balance.

  5. Which features point to TRALI rather than TACO in a patient breathless after transfusion?

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    Hypotension, normal or low JVP, normal BNP and no fluid overload.

    Why? TRALI is non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema: donor anti-HLA/anti-leucocyte antibodies activate recipient neutrophils in the lungs.

  6. A patient with a past history of Hodgkin lymphoma needs red cells. Which special product requirement applies?

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    Irradiated blood components (lifelong requirement).

    Why? Irradiation inactivates donor T-lymphocytes, preventing transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease.

  7. In major haemorrhage, what is the tranexamic acid dose and time window?

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    1 g IV over 10 minutes, then 1 g over 8 hours — ideally within 3 hours of bleeding onset.

    Why? Early antifibrinolysis reduces bleeding deaths; benefit falls with delay.

  8. NICE restrictive red cell transfusion threshold: Hb ______ g/L (target 70–90 g/L); in acute coronary syndrome the threshold is 80 g/L.

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    70

    Why? Restrictive thresholds are as safe as liberal ones and reduce transfusion-related harm.

  9. NICE restrictive red cell transfusion threshold: Hb 70 g/L (target 70–90 g/L); in acute coronary syndrome the threshold is ______ g/L.

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    80

    Why? Restrictive thresholds are as safe as liberal ones and reduce transfusion-related harm.

  10. The universal red cell donor is group ______; the universal plasma (FFP) donor is group ______.

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    O RhD-negative; AB

    Why? O-negative cells carry no A, B or D antigens; AB plasma contains no anti-A or anti-B antibodies.

  11. Which blood component carries the highest risk of bacterial contamination, and why?

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    Platelets — because they are stored at room temperature (20–24 °C).

    Why? Warm storage lets skin-derived bacteria multiply, so transfusion-transmitted sepsis is most often linked to platelets.

  12. When is anti-D immunoglobulin given to an RhD-negative pregnant woman?

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    Routinely in the third trimester (around 28 weeks), within 72 hours of delivery of an RhD-positive baby, and within 72 hours of any sensitising event.

    Why? Anti-D clears RhD-positive fetal cells before the mother makes her own anti-D, preventing haemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn in later pregnancies.

  13. Which electrolyte disturbance is caused by the citrate in blood products during massive transfusion?

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    Hypocalcaemia (citrate binds ionised calcium).

    Why? Low ionised calcium worsens coagulopathy and cardiac contractility, so it must be checked and replaced.

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