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Nephritic syndrome, GN & vasculitis flashcards

20 high-yield MRCP Part 1 cards from the Intellect Medicos Nephrology course. Try to answer each question before you open it — then study them properly with spaced repetition, which brings each card back just before you would forget it.

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  1. What urine finding distinguishes nephritic syndrome from nephrotic syndrome?

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    Haematuria with red cell casts (dysmorphic red cells).

    Why? Nephritic syndrome also features hypertension, oliguria, oedema and mild–moderate proteinuria (<3 g/day), from glomerular inflammation.

  2. How long after a streptococcal sore throat does post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis typically develop?

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    1–3 weeks (3–6 weeks after impetigo).

    Why? The latent period reflects immune complex formation. IgA nephropathy, by contrast, occurs within 1–2 days of an URTI.

  3. What is the complement pattern in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

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    Low C3 with normal C4.

    Why? Immune complexes activate the alternative pathway. C3 usually returns to normal within about 8 weeks.

  4. What is the electron microscopy finding in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

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    Subepithelial 'humps' (lumpy immune complex deposits).

    Why? Light microscopy shows diffuse endocapillary proliferative GN; immunofluorescence shows granular IgG and C3 ('starry sky').

  5. A 22-year-old man has visible haematuria starting 2 days after a sore throat. He had a similar episode last year. BP and complement are normal. What would renal biopsy immunofluorescence show?

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    Mesangial IgA deposits (± C3).

    Why? This is IgA nephropathy (Berger disease), the commonest primary GN worldwide. Episodes of frank haematuria occur within days of mucosal infection.

  6. Name two conditions associated with secondary IgA nephropathy.

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    Coeliac disease, alcoholic liver disease and IgA vasculitis (HSP) — any two.

    Why? These all involve abnormal IgA production or reduced hepatic clearance of IgA complexes.

  7. What is the first-line management of IgA nephropathy with proteinuria?

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    Supportive care — ACE inhibitor or ARB at the maximum tolerated dose, with tight BP control.

    Why? Reducing proteinuria slows progression. KDIGO 2025 aims for proteinuria below 0.5 g/day (ideally below 0.3) and BP ≤120/70. If proteinuria stays at 1 g/day or more, NICE allows targeted-release budesonide (TA1128) or sparsentan, a dual endothelin–angiotensin receptor antagonist that replaces the ACEi/ARB (TA1074); an SGLT2 inhibitor may also be added.

  8. Name the four classic features of IgA vasculitis (Henoch–Schönlein purpura).

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    Palpable purpura (buttocks and legs), arthralgia, abdominal pain and nephritis.

    Why? It is a small-vessel vasculitis with IgA immune complex deposition, mainly in children, often after an URTI. Treatment is usually supportive.

  9. In anti-GBM disease (Goodpasture's), what is the target antigen and the immunofluorescence pattern?

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    The α3 chain of type IV collagen; linear IgG along the GBM.

    Why? The same antigen is in alveolar basement membrane, so pulmonary haemorrhage (haemoptysis) accompanies rapidly progressive GN.

  10. What is the treatment of anti-GBM disease?

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    Plasma exchange plus high-dose corticosteroids plus cyclophosphamide.

    Why? Plasma exchange removes circulating anti-GBM antibody while immunosuppression stops further production.

  11. Type I membranoproliferative GN is classically associated with which infection, and what is its light microscopy appearance?

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    Hepatitis C (with cryoglobulinaemia); 'tram-track' double-contoured GBM.

    Why? Subendothelial immune complex deposits trigger mesangial interposition, splitting the GBM. Complement (C3 and C4) is low.

  12. Dense deposit disease (old type II MPGN) is associated with which autoantibody?

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    C3 nephritic factor (stabilises C3 convertase of the alternative pathway).

    Why? This causes persistent alternative-pathway activation: low C3, normal C4, C3-dominant deposits. It now falls under C3 glomerulopathy.

  13. Name three glomerular diseases that cause a LOW serum complement.

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    Post-infectious GN, lupus nephritis, MPGN (including cryoglobulinaemia and endocarditis-associated GN).

    Why? IgA nephropathy, anti-GBM disease and ANCA vasculitis usually have normal complement — useful in exam stems.

  14. The most common and severe class of lupus nephritis is class ______, whereas class V (membranous) typically presents with nephrotic syndrome.

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    IV (diffuse proliferative)

    Why? Class IV shows wire-loop lesions (subendothelial deposits) and 'full house' immunofluorescence (IgG, IgA, IgM, C3, C1q).

  15. The most common and severe class of lupus nephritis is class IV (diffuse proliferative), whereas class ______ typically presents with nephrotic syndrome.

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    V (membranous)

    Why? Class IV shows wire-loop lesions (subendothelial deposits) and 'full house' immunofluorescence (IgG, IgA, IgM, C3, C1q).

  16. What is the induction therapy for class III/IV lupus nephritis?

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    Mycophenolate mofetil or IV cyclophosphamide, plus corticosteroids.

    Why? KDIGO 2024 also allows belimumab added to MMF or cyclophosphamide, or MMF plus a calcineurin inhibitor (NICE TA882: voclosporin with MMF for active class III–V). Maintenance is with MMF or azathioprine. Everyone gets hydroxychloroquine unless contraindicated, plus ACEi/ARB for proteinuria.

  17. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is associated with ______, whereas microscopic polyangiitis is associated with p-ANCA (anti-MPO).

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    c-ANCA (anti-PR3)

    Why? GPA has granulomas with sinus, lung (cavitating nodules) and kidney disease. MPA has no granulomas. EGPA (asthma + eosinophilia) is MPO-ANCA positive in a minority.

  18. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is associated with c-ANCA (anti-PR3), whereas microscopic polyangiitis is associated with ______.

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    p-ANCA (anti-MPO)

    Why? GPA has granulomas with sinus, lung (cavitating nodules) and kidney disease. MPA has no granulomas. EGPA (asthma + eosinophilia) is MPO-ANCA positive in a minority.

  19. What is the induction treatment for ANCA-associated vasculitis with renal involvement?

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    Glucocorticoids plus either rituximab or cyclophosphamide.

    Why? Reduced-dose glucocorticoid regimens work as well as traditional high doses with less toxicity. Consider plasma exchange if creatinine is above 300 µmol/L, on dialysis or rising fast, or with alveolar haemorrhage and hypoxaemia. Maintenance is rituximab (preferred in relapsing or PR3 disease and frail older adults) or azathioprine, for 18 months to 4 years.

  20. What is the most common cause of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis in adults?

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    Pauci-immune (ANCA-associated) GN — type III RPGN.

    Why? Biopsy shows crescents in Bowman's space with little or no immune deposit on immunofluorescence.

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