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Physiology, lung function & ABGs flashcards

19 high-yield MRCP Part 1 cards from the Intellect Medicos Respiratory Medicine course. Try to answer each question before you open it — then study them properly with spaced repetition, which brings each card back just before you would forget it.

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  1. Which mnemonic lists the causes of a RIGHT shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, and what does it stand for?

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    CADET: CO2 raised, Acid (low pH), 2,3-DPG raised, Exercise, Temperature raised.

    Why? A right shift lowers haemoglobin affinity for oxygen, so oxygen is released more easily to metabolically active tissues.

  2. Name three causes of a LEFT shift of the oxygen dissociation curve.

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    Any three of: carbon monoxide poisoning, methaemoglobinaemia, fetal haemoglobin (HbF), alkalosis, low CO2, hypothermia, low 2,3-DPG.

    Why? A left shift means haemoglobin holds on to oxygen more tightly, so less oxygen is released to the tissues.

  3. Raised CO2 and H+ lowering haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen in the tissues is the ______ effect; oxygenated haemoglobin carrying less CO2 in the lungs is the Haldane effect.

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    Bohr

    Why? Bohr helps oxygen unloading in tissues (right shift). Haldane helps CO2 unloading in the lungs because oxygenated Hb binds less CO2 and H+.

  4. Raised CO2 and H+ lowering haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen in the tissues is the Bohr effect; oxygenated haemoglobin carrying less CO2 in the lungs is the ______ effect.

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    Haldane

    Why? Bohr helps oxygen unloading in tissues (right shift). Haldane helps CO2 unloading in the lungs because oxygenated Hb binds less CO2 and H+.

  5. Where are the central chemoreceptors, and what stimulus do they mainly respond to?

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    Ventral surface of the medulla; they respond to a rise in H+ (fall in pH) in CSF caused by raised PaCO2.

    Why? CO2 crosses the blood–brain barrier and forms H+, so central chemoreceptors are the main minute-to-minute controllers of ventilation via CO2.

  6. What ABG values define type 2 respiratory failure?

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    PaO2 < 8 kPa with PaCO2 > 6.0 kPa (45 mmHg); some sources, including the course notes, use > 6.5 kPa.

    Why? Type 2 failure is hypercapnic: alveolar hypoventilation (COPD, OHS, CNS depression, neuromuscular disease) fails to clear CO2.

  7. What is the main mechanism of type 1 respiratory failure?

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    Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) mismatch.

    Why? Pneumonia, pulmonary oedema, ARDS, PE and ILD impair oxygen transfer; CO2 is still cleared, so PaCO2 is normal or low.

  8. What spirometry ratio confirms an obstructive defect?

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    FEV1/FVC < 0.7.

    Why? In obstruction FEV1 falls much more than FVC, so the ratio drops.

  9. Which lung-volume measurement is the gold standard for confirming a restrictive defect?

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    A reduced total lung capacity (TLC).

    Why? A low FVC on spirometry suggests restriction, but only a low TLC on lung-volume testing confirms it.

  10. Name two causes of a RAISED transfer factor (TLCO).

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    Any two of: pulmonary haemorrhage, polycythaemia, left-to-right cardiac shunt, asthma, hyperkinetic states.

    Why? More blood (or haemoglobin) in the alveoli or pulmonary capillaries takes up more carbon monoxide during the test.

  11. How does TLCO help to distinguish asthma from emphysema?

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    TLCO is normal or raised in asthma but reduced in emphysema.

    Why? Emphysema destroys alveolar walls and the capillary bed, so gas transfer falls. Asthma affects airways, not the gas-exchange surface.

  12. In extrapulmonary restriction (e.g. obesity, scoliosis, neuromuscular weakness), what is the typical gas-transfer pattern?

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    Raised KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO.

    Why? The alveoli and capillaries are healthy but lung volume (VA) is small. As TLCO = KCO × VA, KCO rises while TLCO is normal or low.

  13. What does the flow–volume loop show in a VARIABLE EXTRAthoracic upper airway obstruction (e.g. vocal cord paralysis)?

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    A flattened (truncated) inspiratory limb with a normal expiratory limb.

    Why? During inspiration, negative airway pressure narrows the extrathoracic airway further; during expiration positive pressure holds it open.

  14. What does the flow–volume loop show in a FIXED upper airway obstruction (e.g. tracheal stenosis)?

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    Flattening of BOTH the inspiratory and expiratory limbs (a "box-shaped" loop).

    Why? A rigid narrowing limits flow equally in both directions, regardless of intrathoracic pressure.

  15. Name three causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.

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    Any three of: sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, lymphoma, histoplasmosis, berylliosis.

    Why? These cause granulomatous or malignant hilar node enlargement visible on chest X-ray.

  16. Winter's formula: in metabolic acidosis the expected PaCO2 (mmHg) = ______.

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    1.5 × HCO3− + 8 (± 2)

    Why? It tells you whether respiratory compensation is appropriate. Divide mmHg by 7.5 to convert to kPa.

  17. In a metabolic acidosis, the measured PaCO2 is HIGHER than predicted by Winter's formula. What does this mean?

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    There is an additional (co-existing) respiratory acidosis.

    Why? The lungs are not blowing off as much CO2 as expected, so a second, respiratory process is present (a mixed disorder).

  18. How much does bicarbonate rise per 1.3 kPa (10 mmHg) rise in PaCO2 in CHRONIC respiratory acidosis?

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    About 3.5–4 mmol/L (versus about 1 mmol/L in acute respiratory acidosis).

    Why? Renal compensation (retaining bicarbonate) takes 3–5 days, so a big bicarbonate rise implies a chronic process such as COPD.

  19. How is the anion gap calculated?

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    Na+ − (Cl− + HCO3−); potassium is usually omitted.

    Why? A raised anion gap metabolic acidosis points to unmeasured acids such as lactate, ketones, toxins (methanol, ethylene glycol, salicylates) or renal failure.

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