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Rheumatoid arthritis flashcards

16 high-yield MRCP Part 1 cards from the Intellect Medicos Rheumatology course. Try to answer each question before you open it — then study them properly with spaced repetition, which brings each card back just before you would forget it.

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  1. Which HLA allele is most strongly associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

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    HLA-DR4 (HLA-DR1 to a lesser extent).

    Why? HLA-DR4 also marks a worse prognosis in RA.

  2. What is the strongest modifiable risk factor for developing rheumatoid arthritis?

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    Smoking.

    Why? Smoking increases the risk of seropositive RA and is linked to more severe disease, so cessation is part of management.

  3. A 42-year-old woman has 8 weeks of painful swelling of the MCP and PIP joints of both hands, with 90 minutes of morning stiffness. Following NICE, which blood test should be offered first?

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    Rheumatoid factor.

    Why? NICE NG100 advises testing RF first and considering anti-CCP antibodies if RF is negative. X-rays of the hands and feet are also requested.

  4. Which autoantibody is the most specific for rheumatoid arthritis and predicts erosive disease?

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    Anti-CCP (anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide) antibody.

    Why? Rheumatoid factor is sensitive but non-specific; anti-CCP is highly specific and high titres predict severe, erosive disease.

  5. Rheumatoid factor is an ______ antibody directed against the ______.

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    IgM; Fc portion of IgG

    Why? RF is not specific for RA: it is positive in almost all Felty's syndrome, about half of Sjögren's and infective endocarditis, and in mixed cryoglobulinaemia.

  6. According to NICE, which three features in suspected persistent synovitis should prompt URGENT rheumatology referral?

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    Small joints of the hands or feet affected; more than one joint affected; or 3 months or longer between symptom onset and seeking advice.

    Why? Early DMARD treatment in the "window of opportunity" limits joint damage, so any of these features triggers urgent referral.

  7. Which imaging does NICE recommend at diagnosis of RA as a baseline?

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    X-rays of the hands and feet.

    Why? Baseline films show existing erosions (a poor prognostic sign) and allow progression to be tracked.

  8. Name three plain X-ray findings of rheumatoid arthritis in the hand.

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    Any three: periarticular osteopenia, marginal bony erosions, joint space narrowing, soft-tissue swelling, subluxation.

    Why? Inflamed pannus destroys cartilage (joint space narrowing) and bare bone at the joint margins (erosions).

  9. In the NICE treat-to-target approach to active RA, what is measured monthly until the target is reached?

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    CRP and a disease activity score (e.g. DAS28).

    Why? The target is remission, or low disease activity if remission is not achievable; treatment is stepped up until the target is met.

  10. For mild or palindromic RA, which cDMARD may NICE consider as an alternative to the standard first-line options?

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    Hydroxychloroquine.

    Why? Hydroxychloroquine is a weaker DMARD but well tolerated, so it suits mild or palindromic disease.

  11. What is given to control symptoms while a newly started cDMARD takes effect in RA?

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    A short course of glucocorticoids (oral, IM or intra-articular) as "bridging" therapy.

    Why? cDMARDs take weeks to months to work; long-term steroids are avoided because of their side effects.

  12. A 68-year-old woman with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis is listed for a hip replacement under general anaesthesia. She mentions neck pain and occipital headaches. Which complication must be excluded before intubation?

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    Atlantoaxial (C1–C2) subluxation — image the cervical spine first.

    Why? Neck extension during intubation can cause cord compression and sudden death in unstable C1–C2 disease.

  13. A rheumatoid pleural effusion is an exudate with very ______, low pH and high LDH.

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    low glucose

    Why? The very low glucose is a classic exam discriminator from other exudates (empyema also has low glucose).

  14. Felty syndrome is the triad of rheumatoid arthritis, ______ and ______.

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    splenomegaly; neutropenia

    Why? It reflects severe, usually seropositive, long-standing RA and raises infection risk because of the neutropenia.

  15. Name three poor prognostic factors in rheumatoid arthritis.

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    Any three: RF positive, anti-CCP positive, early erosions on X-ray, extra-articular disease (e.g. nodules), poor function at presentation, HLA-DR4, insidious onset.

    Why? These features predict erosive progression and justify earlier, more aggressive treatment.

  16. Which hand joints are characteristically spared in rheumatoid arthritis?

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    The distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints.

    Why? RA affects MCP, PIP and MTP joints symmetrically. DIP involvement suggests osteoarthritis (Heberden's nodes) or psoriatic arthritis.

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