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Diabetes drugs & NICE pathways flashcards

27 high-yield MRCP Part 1 cards from the Intellect Medicos Endocrinology & Diabetes course. Try to answer each question before you open it — then study them properly with spaced repetition, which brings each card back just before you would forget it.

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  1. Under the 2026 NICE NG28 update, what is first-line drug treatment for type 2 diabetes with no relevant comorbidities?

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    Modified-release metformin AND an SGLT-2 inhibitor.

    Why? SGLT-2 inhibitors add cardiovascular and renal protection. If metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated, offer an SGLT-2 inhibitor alone.

  2. Why does NICE now recommend modified-release rather than standard-release metformin?

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    Similar glucose-lowering with fewer gastrointestinal side effects (and possibly better adherence).

    Why? Standard-release can still be used if the person needs to crush tablets or use a liquid, or already tolerates it.

  3. In type 2 diabetes with no comorbidities, which drug class does NICE add next if metformin plus an SGLT-2 inhibitor is not enough?

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    A DPP-4 inhibitor.

    Why? If that is not tolerated or not effective, use a sulfonylurea, pioglitazone or insulin-based treatment.

  4. Which additional drug does NICE offer from the start for type 2 diabetes with established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease?

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    Subcutaneous semaglutide once weekly (up to 1 mg), with MR metformin and an SGLT-2 inhibitor.

    Why? Semaglutide has proven cardiovascular benefit; tirzepatide lacked evidence in this group.

  5. What does NICE offer for type 2 diabetes with CKD and eGFR 20–30 mL/min/1.73m²?

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    Dapagliflozin or empagliflozin plus a DPP-4 inhibitor.

    Why? Metformin is not started below eGFR 30. Below eGFR 20, consider a DPP-4 inhibitor alone, then pioglitazone or insulin.

  6. In type 2 diabetes with obesity, what does NICE consider as the first additional treatment if metformin plus an SGLT-2 inhibitor is not enough?

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    A GLP-1 receptor agonist or tirzepatide.

    Why? Add it after at least 3 months of initial therapy if more glucose lowering is needed. If these are unsuitable, add a DPP-4 inhibitor instead.

  7. For early-onset type 2 diabetes (diagnosed before age 40), what does NICE suggest considering alongside metformin and an SGLT-2 inhibitor from the start?

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    A GLP-1 receptor agonist or tirzepatide.

    Why? Early-onset type 2 diabetes is aggressive, with high lifetime complication risk.

  8. A frail older person with type 2 diabetes cannot take metformin, and their frailty puts them at risk from an SGLT-2 inhibitor. What does NICE suggest instead?

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    DPP-4 inhibitor monotherapy.

    Why? In frailty NICE offers modified-release metformin, and an SGLT-2 inhibitor only if frailty does not put the person at risk (e.g. volume depletion, hypotension). A DPP-4 inhibitor is also the first add-on if more treatment is needed.

  9. In type 2 diabetes on an initial regimen that does not cause hypoglycaemia (e.g. metformin plus an SGLT-2 inhibitor), what HbA1c target applies, and at what level is treatment intensified?

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    Target 48 mmol/mol (6.5%); intensify if it rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%) or higher, then aim for 53 mmol/mol (7.0%).

    Why? If the person takes a medicine that can cause hypoglycaemia (e.g. a sulfonylurea), the target is 53 mmol/mol (7.0%). Targets are agreed individually and may be relaxed in older or frail people.

  10. What is the main mechanism of action of metformin?

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    It reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and increases insulin sensitivity.

    Why? It does not stimulate insulin release, so it does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain.

  11. Which vitamin deficiency is linked to long-term metformin use?

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    Vitamin B12 deficiency.

    Why? The MHRA (2022) advises testing B12 if deficiency is suspected (e.g. new neuropathy or megaloblastic anaemia) and considering periodic monitoring in people with risk factors.

  12. Below which eGFR should metformin not be used?

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    eGFR below 30 mL/min/1.73m² (reduce the dose if below 45).

    Why? Metformin is renally cleared; accumulation increases lactic acidosis risk. It should also be withheld in sepsis, dehydration and acute hypoxic states.

  13. What is the mechanism of action of sulfonylureas?

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    They close ATP-sensitive potassium channels on beta cells, causing depolarisation and insulin release.

    Why? They are insulin secretagogues, so they work only if beta cells still function.

  14. What are the two commonest adverse effects of sulfonylureas?

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    Hypoglycaemia (worse with long-acting agents) and weight gain.

    Why? Rarer effects include SIADH, cholestatic liver injury, bone marrow suppression and haemolysis in G6PD deficiency.

  15. What is the mechanism of action of pioglitazone?

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    PPAR-gamma agonist, reducing peripheral insulin resistance.

    Why? It increases insulin sensitivity in fat and muscle.

  16. In which cardiac condition is pioglitazone contraindicated, and why?

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    Heart failure — it causes fluid retention.

    Why? Fluid retention occurs in about 10% and is worse with insulin. Other effects include weight gain and fractures.

  17. Which cancer is associated with pioglitazone?

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    Bladder cancer.

    Why? Avoid it in active or previous bladder cancer and in uninvestigated haematuria.

  18. How do GLP-1 receptor agonists (e.g. semaglutide, liraglutide) lower glucose?

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    They increase glucose-dependent insulin secretion, suppress glucagon, slow gastric emptying and reduce appetite.

    Why? They usually cause weight loss and carry a low hypoglycaemia risk on their own.

  19. Which serious adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists should prompt stopping the drug if severe abdominal pain occurs?

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    Acute pancreatitis.

    Why? GI side effects (nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea) are common.

  20. According to the MHRA (2025), what contraceptive advice applies to women starting tirzepatide?

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    Use a non-oral method (or add a barrier method) for 4 weeks after starting and after each dose increase.

    Why? Tirzepatide may reduce oral contraceptive absorption in people living with overweight or obesity. GLP-1 medicines should not be used in pregnancy or breastfeeding; stop tirzepatide at least 1 month before trying to conceive.

  21. What is the mechanism of action of DPP-4 inhibitors (gliptins)?

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    They block breakdown of endogenous incretins (GLP-1 and GIP), increasing insulin and reducing glucagon.

    Why? They are oral, weight-neutral and low risk for hypoglycaemia — useful in older people or those at risk from hypos.

  22. What is the mechanism of action of SGLT-2 inhibitors (gliflozins)?

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    They inhibit the sodium–glucose co-transporter 2 in the proximal convoluted tubule, causing glycosuria.

    Why? Effects: weight loss, lower blood pressure (sodium loss) and cardiovascular and renal benefit.

  23. A man with type 2 diabetes on dapagliflozin is unwell with vomiting after surgery. Glucose is 9 mmol/L, pH 7.15 and blood ketones 5.2 mmol/L. What is the diagnosis?

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    Euglycaemic diabetic ketoacidosis caused by the SGLT-2 inhibitor.

    Why? Glycosuria keeps glucose near normal while ketones rise. Interrupt SGLT-2 inhibitors during acute serious illness and around major surgery, check blood ketones, and restart once ketones are normal and the patient is stable.

  24. Which rare but serious genital infection has the MHRA linked to SGLT-2 inhibitors?

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    Fournier's gangrene (necrotising fasciitis of the perineum).

    Why? Glycosuria predisposes to urinary and genital infections, which are common.

  25. How does insulin glargine achieve its long, flat action profile?

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    It precipitates in subcutaneous tissue and is slowly released.

    Why? Detemir prolongs action by binding albumin; degludec forms multi-hexamer chains. Long-acting analogues cause less nocturnal hypoglycaemia than NPH (isophane).

  26. What is the standard insulin regimen for type 1 diabetes?

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    Basal–bolus (multiple daily injections): long-acting basal insulin plus rapid-acting insulin with meals.

    Why? It best mimics physiological insulin secretion and allows flexible dosing. Twice-daily premixed is less flexible with more hypoglycaemia.

  27. During Ramadan, how should a patient split their metformin dose?

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    One-third before sunrise (suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (iftar).

    Why? The larger dose goes with the larger meal. Pioglitazone needs no dose change; once-daily sulfonylureas are taken after sunset.

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