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Hyperthyroidism & thyroid cancer flashcards

28 high-yield MRCP Part 1 cards from the Intellect Medicos Endocrinology & Diabetes course. Try to answer each question before you open it — then study them properly with spaced repetition, which brings each card back just before you would forget it.

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  1. What is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis?

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    Graves' disease.

    Why? It is caused by TSH-receptor-stimulating autoantibodies.

  2. Which antibody test confirms Graves' disease?

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    TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb).

    Why? Radioisotope uptake is diffuse and increased in Graves, focal in a toxic nodule and low in thyroiditis.

  3. Which drug is used first to control the adrenergic symptoms of thyrotoxicosis?

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    Propranolol.

    Why? It controls palpitations, tremor and anxiety while antithyroid drugs take weeks to act.

  4. What is the first-line antithyroid drug for Graves' disease outside pregnancy?

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    Carbimazole, titrated to euthyroidism and usually continued for 12–18 months.

    Why? Block-and-replace (high-dose carbimazole plus levothyroxine) is an alternative but not used in pregnancy.

  5. What is carbimazole's active metabolite?

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    Methimazole (thiamazole).

    Why? It inhibits thyroid peroxidase, blocking synthesis of new thyroid hormone.

  6. What is the most serious adverse effect of carbimazole, and what must patients be told?

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    Agranulocytosis — report sore throat, fever or mouth ulcers urgently for a full blood count.

    Why? Check a full blood count before starting. If agranulocytosis is confirmed, stop and do not restart any antithyroid drug. Routine FBC monitoring is not recommended.

  7. Which serious adverse effect of carbimazole was highlighted by the MHRA in 2019, requiring permanent withdrawal?

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    Acute pancreatitis.

    Why? Re-challenge can cause recurrence, so carbimazole must not be restarted.

  8. What is the major serious adverse effect of propylthiouracil (PTU)?

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    Hepatotoxicity (can cause liver failure).

    Why? This is why PTU is mainly reserved for the first trimester of pregnancy and thyroid storm.

  9. Besides blocking thyroid hormone synthesis, what extra action does propylthiouracil have?

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    It blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

    Why? This makes it useful in thyroid storm.

  10. Which antithyroid drug is preferred in the FIRST trimester of pregnancy?

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    Propylthiouracil.

    Why? Carbimazole is linked to congenital abnormalities during organogenesis. Switch to carbimazole in the second and third trimesters because PTU is hepatotoxic.

  11. When treating hyperthyroidism in pregnancy, what free T4 level is targeted?

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    The upper limit of the normal reference range, using the lowest effective dose.

    Why? Antithyroid drugs cross the placenta; overtreatment causes fetal hypothyroidism and goitre.

  12. What is the main absolute contraindication to radioiodine, and how long should conception be avoided afterwards?

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    Pregnancy (and breastfeeding); avoid conception for 4–6 months after treatment.

    Why? Radioiodine crosses the placenta and destroys the fetal thyroid.

  13. Which pre-existing condition may be worsened by radioiodine therapy?

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    Active thyroid eye disease (Graves' orbitopathy).

    Why? It is a relative contraindication; steroid cover can be used.

  14. What is the biggest modifiable risk factor for Graves' orbitopathy?

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    Smoking.

    Why? Stopping smoking, restoring euthyroidism and avoiding hypothyroidism all help eye disease.

  15. What is the treatment for ACTIVE, SEVERE Graves' orbitopathy?

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    High-dose glucocorticoids (usually IV methylprednisolone).

    Why? Steroids are reserved for active severe disease; sight-threatening optic nerve compression may need urgent decompression.

  16. What is the treatment of choice for toxic multinodular goitre?

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    Radioiodine.

    Why? Antithyroid drugs control it short-term but relapse is common because nodules are autonomous. Surgery is used for large or compressive goitres.

  17. A thyrotoxic woman has a painful tender goitre after a flu-like illness, raised ESR and globally low radioiodine uptake. What is the diagnosis?

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    Subacute (de Quervain's) thyroiditis.

    Why? Viral inflammation releases stored hormone (hence low uptake), followed by a hypothyroid phase and recovery.

  18. What is the treatment of thyroid pain in de Quervain's thyroiditis?

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    NSAIDs or aspirin; prednisolone in more severe cases.

    Why? It is usually self-limiting. Antithyroid drugs are not useful because no new hormone is being made.

  19. How is the hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis treated?

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    Beta-blocker (e.g. propranolol) for symptoms; antithyroid drugs are not indicated.

    Why? It is a destructive thyroiditis (anti-TPO positive). The later hypothyroid phase may need levothyroxine.

  20. How is type 2 amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis treated?

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    Glucocorticoids (e.g. prednisolone).

    Why? Type 2 is a destructive thyroiditis in a normal gland: IL-6 is raised and radioiodine uptake is low.

  21. How is type 1 amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis treated?

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    Antithyroid drugs (e.g. carbimazole).

    Why? Type 1 is iodine-induced excess hormone synthesis in an abnormal gland (e.g. nodular goitre); uptake is normal or high.

  22. Which scoring system is used to diagnose thyroid storm?

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    The Burch–Wartofsky point scale (score >45 suggests thyroid storm).

    Why? Diagnosis is clinical — fever, tachycardia, agitation/delirium, GI upset — so do not wait for TFTs.

  23. In thyroid storm, why is Lugol's iodine given only AFTER the thionamide (e.g. PTU)?

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    So that the iodine cannot be used as substrate to make more thyroid hormone.

    Why? Iodine then blocks hormone release (Wolff–Chaikoff effect). Propranolol, steroids and supportive care are given alongside.

  24. What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

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    Papillary carcinoma (about 70%).

    Why? It often affects young women, spreads to lymph nodes and has an excellent prognosis.

  25. Which thyroid cancer arises from parafollicular C cells, and what tumour marker does it secrete?

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    Medullary thyroid carcinoma; calcitonin.

    Why? About 20–25% are familial (RET mutation), for example as part of MEN 2.

  26. Why can fine-needle aspiration not distinguish follicular carcinoma from follicular adenoma?

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    Malignancy is defined by capsular or vascular invasion, which needs full histology of the excised nodule.

    Why? Follicular carcinoma spreads mainly by the blood (haematogenous), unlike papillary.

  27. After total thyroidectomy for differentiated thyroid cancer, which blood test is the tumour marker for recurrence?

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    Serum thyroglobulin.

    Why? With no thyroid tissue left, detectable thyroglobulin suggests residual or recurrent disease. Recombinant TSH (thyrotropin alfa) can stimulate it without stopping levothyroxine.

  28. After total thyroidectomy and radioiodine for differentiated thyroid cancer, why is levothyroxine initially given at TSH-suppressive doses?

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    TSH stimulates growth of thyroid cancer cells, so suppressing it (to below 0.1 mU/L) reduces recurrence.

    Why? NICE reassesses at 9–12 months: with an excellent response the TSH target is relaxed to 0.3–2.0 mU/L for life; it stays suppressed if there is persistent or recurrent disease.

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